Chapter II
Prolegomena to Any Future
Noumenology
David C. Braun
© 2006 David C. Braun
Chapter II
[A. Consideration of the Transcendental
Aesthetic:]
9
[i. The general question of
intuition; response to Kant’s view:]
Because the Kantian Transcendental
Aesthetic contains an anticipation of his position restricting knowledge with
the categories of the understanding (indeed all knowledge) to phenomenal
experience alone, I turn first to consideration of what I deem to be crucial
portions of the Transcendental Aesthetic, especially in relation to the
category of cause.
Kant calls an intuition (i.e.,
the direct source of the mind’s ideas of an object, forming the ultimate material
of thought) pure when there is in it (i.e., in the representation) nothing
belonging to sensation (i.e., that effect produced by an object upon the
faculty of representation, so far as I am affected by it, whereby empirical
intuitions may be had). The pure form of
all sensuous intuitions, the form in which the manifold elements of the
phenomena (i.e., undefined objects of the empirical intuition) are seen in a
certain order, must be found in the mind a priori. This pure form of sensibility he calls pure
intuition.[1]
But only apprehension of events
as if in order is an apprehension of the rational in the events’ relations, the
sole ground for asserting the apprehension’s being in the mind a priori. This is nothing other than the idea that the percepta of the world are within an
internal system. To the extent that
reasoning begins with internals, it can apply only thereto. But the nature of order, also apprehended by
the mind (which by mastery of the laws of logical order can begin a priori) is,
at least with regard to that system, harmonic.
Thus thought can treat all harmonic definitions and know wherein the
internal system cannot produce certain independent, thus external harmonies. Yet logic applies all the same thereto
because such external is of harmony, the guarantee being that harmony does not
harmonize with disharmony or nullity (e.g., as to origin). The harmonic intuition is the sole
“nonsensuous” intuition (if I allow myself an incautious expression) that can
be granted; from it, my notions of definitional order come by discursive
development and by perception (as in the case of time, infra). The rule is that all
things are known by conclusions from the definitional premises.
[ii.
Anticipation of the independent harmony and its meaning:]
What was set forth above on the
intellect’s ability to know independent harmony will be treated elsewhere. At this juncture, the ultimate nature of the
task can be seen for what it is. One
might suggest, as below, and as accomodation to Kant’s position, that time is
simply consciousness’ harmonization of the percepta
as within a general system of perceptual definitions. Even be this so, time could be nothing more
than the definitional form, as perceived, of a harmony imposed within the system,
a harmony within the rule of ground and consequent. So harmony conveyed within the system and
generated therein, as imposed or in turn imposing, must be anticipated
according to the harmony by a ground within the system. If there be perceived a harmony not in
accordance with any such principle but unanticipated, it is not of the system
of consciousness’ harmonization, even though, by the definitions’ being
constantly defined (so as to avoid the uncertainty problem of the undetermined
in, e.g., quantum mechanics), consciousness has such power, then the harmony is
independent of the system, yet is, as harmony, of a harmonic origin aside from
consciousness. Only by such a method can
I know anything outside my “perceptual system,” and then only to the extent
allowed by its internal harmony. Yet
that will allow me to speak of origin, as harmonic, by the rule of principle
and conclusion, of ground and consequent; thence I may speak of causes, etc.
Lest it be argued that the
harmony of my world be the product of the agent of consciousness, only if the harmony
be grounded in the conscious could it be said that the harmony was not
independent. Otherwise my conclusion
that there is an independent harmony grounded in the harmony of being, with all
that is entailed, even causation in being independent of experience, might be
granted in the objection. The harmony
perceived internally may be said to be caused by the harmony of internal
consciousness through the act of perception, but perception can be imposition only
if the harmony is anticipated according to the harmonic rule in
definition. (The experience in question
is such as to be in the direct reach and control of the consciousness. The harmony is unanticipated, not only as
thing, but as harmony.) The harmony that
is unanticipated but yet a harmony can be rooted only in a harmony independent
of consciousness, which is in being. For
it is perceived as pure harmony, which is yet not rooted in the consciousness’
harmony because not within the anticipation rule. (For disharmony can be perceived.) The causes of a harmonic perception must be
harmonic, or not disharmonic, including the material cause, which must be in
ease. (Further, one would have harmony
only in the actual system if there be no independent harmony. The argument on definition without con tent
applies equally to any column of argument involving the body where one is
apprised of the harmony before knowing its “vehicle.”) If the thing perceived is independent, as
fact of definition, of the consciousness because unanticipated, it is also by
the same token independent of the agent.
A definition without content is not a definition but nothing at all; and
the only content of the harmony perceived is its harmony. The harmony that is the state in the
consciousness yet newly come must be of that which is harmonic, as the
perceiving faculty receives disharmony only as it is; so I experience it, and
so also of the thing accomplished by that which is its independent cause, as it
certainly is not, even by my experience, ex
nihilo. Therefore the cause, which
is independent, is independent harmony.
Hence I may know that there is a being, and that causation exists in
reality, not merely in the percepta,[2]
10
[A. (cont’d.):]
[iii.
Kant’s exposition of time; and response:]
Kant, by stating that time is
not an empirical concept deduced from experience because neither coexistence
nor succession would enter perception were representation of time not given a
priori,[3]
desires to banish altogether the empirical element (or any scintilla
thereof) from time. But whence come
ideas if not from experience, whether of externals or of internals, but from
reasoning in regard to other experiential givens? With time, it must be one or the other.
On time as necessary
representation whereon all intuitions allegedly depend, Kant states one cannot
take away time from phenomena, but one can take phenomena out of time. Is this an apparent contradiction in the same
sentence? Is this to say merely one may
consider phenomenal import out of its place in time but one may not experience
phenomena without time? If so, is there
some empirical sense of time, in itself or as part of my underlying psyche’s
life, underlying my sense of phenomena yet not emanating purely therefrom as an
imposition on phenomena? (Or is he
stating that one may well imagine a passage of time without phenomena in it?[4]) From this he states that time is thus given a
priori, that in it alone can a phenomenon be real; therefore, though phenomena
all vanish, time as the general condition of their possibility cannot be
eliminated.[5] First, if all phenomena vanish, then
even those composing the idea of my self may vanish. If so, time (as I know it) must also
vanish. Second, were I to be given the
privilege of knowing all the states of a thing in an undifferentiated present
(which, according to theology, I would know in knowing God in Heaven by infused
knowledge), I should hardly have a sense of time at all, though one should
retort that under such a state of affairs what I know would no longer be a
phenomenon per Se. Why I should have no sense of time
in knowing all the states of a thing as of one knowing will appear from the
fact that there would be nothing unknown to me as there is in moments of future
not within my grasp. Past and present
events can be unknown, but if the unknown be learned, it is learned in the
future. (Kant stated time cannot be
perceived, nor does change affect time but only temporal phenomena.[6] One need not assume the truth of these
points, merely disarming from within, though the main content disarms from
without.)
Kant then states that on the a
priori necessity of time depends the possibility of apodictic (i.e., certain)
principles of the relation of time (e.g., time has only one direction,
different times are successive, different spaces being simultaneous). Were these empirical, they could not be with
certainty applied to all possible experience as mandatory but only to common
experience so far had.[7] But exactly how are these rules
derived? The first is that time has only
one direction, from that which is before to that which is after, not vice-versa.
For if it went both ways, one could proceed from the latter back to
the former state of an object to obliterate it.
Thus would one destroy a thing in its past when it must have a future
continuous with its past (as existent) and without break, and a disharmony is
evidenced. What is this but a way of
seeing that if the premise is false, the conclusion that alone can follow
therefrom is impossible as such because groundless? Time is but the order of events as perceived
by the limited perceiver and as known by the limited intellect. The premises in the order must, by the
harmony, precede a conclusion following only from it; e.g., were one’s left
hand plunged into Nebuchadnezzar’s furnace and slowly withdrawn, and the right vice-versa, the fire being constant, the
temporal order could easily be discerned.
The left as rapidly related must be at that time the premise, as the
right is not yet hot until in contact with the fire.
Kant then states time is not a
“discursive” concept but pure form of sensuous intuition. Different times (as measured parts) are parts
only of one and the same time (the general continuum). Representation produced by a single object
only he calls intuition. He states that
the proposition that different times cannot be at the same time cannot be
deduced from any general concept but is synthetical. Nor can it be deduced from concepts only; it
is thus contained in the intuition and representation of time.[8] How, again, do I know that different
times cannot be at the same time (e.g., two different hours cannot be at the
same hour)? I have times as different to
the extent necessary to preserve the level of ground as anterior to that of
ground and consequent, to preserve the stages of change, so that contradicting
determinations do not exist in a thing so as to be disharmonic (e.g., hot
steam, in being such, cannot thereby be cold ice). This is an ordinal, not a perceptual, rule
based on the harmony of the thing and the logical sequence; precisely because
of this do I affirm my rule on time.
Kant adds that to say time is
infinite means no more than that its every definite quality is possible only by
limitations of one time, which forms the foundation of all times. The original representation of time must
therefore be given as unlimited. But, he
adds, when the parts and every quantity of an object can be represented as
determined by limitation only, the whole representation cannot be given by
concepts (for, in such a case, the partial representations come first) but must
be founded in immediate intuition.[9] But here he illegitimately confuses the
infinite with the syncategorematically indefinite. The latter is based on the notion of
extending the parts of a progressive (or retrogressive, past) sequence without
definite end, an extending consisting of a kind of addition of moments. It must begin with partial
representations. (As St. Paul put it, we
know in part.[10]) The notion of an underlying whole of time is
the synthetic notion of time beyond recalled experience. That latter is most certainly finite and
divisible by the stages as evidenced in the several determinations of things;
from those building blocks of finite divisions I synthesize the
syncategorematically indefinite time beyond experience. Because the blocks of which any such time is
built are finite, they can in no way be compounded so as ever to form a true
eternity. (The latter, as is evident
from what was stated above in the remarks on knowledge of all states, is not of
the nature of time but is sempiternity, in which all are as of one present.)
Kant states the concept of change
(and thus of motion) was possible only through and in the representation of
time, and that, were that representation not intuitive (internally) a priori,
no concept could make us understand the possibility of a change, i.e., of a
connection of contradictorily opposed predicates (e.g., the being and non-being of one and the same thing in one
and the same place in one and the same object).
It is, for Kant, only in time that both contradictorily opposed
determinations can be met in the object, one after another. (The concept of time exhibits, therefore, the
possibility of as many synthetical cognitions a priori as are found in the
general doctrine of motion, which is very rich in them.)[11] Granted that the notion of change as the
connection of opposed determinations is required (by the harmony on the part of
the thing) and requires some ordinal progressive arrangement (of the
determinations in the one object) which is perceived as time by the finite
observer; it is only in view of that harmony that the idea of time as usually
sensed or known has any validity. What
is sensed internally as the mind’s time (which Kant calls an intuition, or the
form of the internal sense) is a succession in harmony of such states. But that succession can be known as a logical
succession of ground and consequent, of premise and conclusion, constructible
in the abstract in terms of definitional givens, for which no intuitions are
needed save that of harmony in the realm of perception. What has so far been said about time as harmonic
order can be confirmed in my own activity involving the ordering of events in
my endeavors according to time calculated mathematically, so that it is not as
if I merely impose such an order onto events, unless I impose it onto
definitions in general.
Kant holds time does not exist
in itself, so that it would be real without being a real object. He holds further that time is not inherent in
things as an objective determination of them that might remain were the subjective
conditions of the intuition abstracted.
This he held because he believed that, if time were an order inherent in
things themselves, it could not be antecedent to things as their condition and
be known and perceived by means of synthetic propositions a priori. This would be possible if time is but a
subjective condition under which alone intuitions occur. Then this form of internal intuition can be
represented prior to the objects themselves, i.e., a priori.[12] I have already noted that time has two
elements: a logical succession of ground
and consequent, of premise and conclusion, and a limited perceiver who cannot
(as so constituted, and left to own devices) take in all stages of things
except by the parts of that succession in its order. That perceiver experiences even in thought
such a succession, which can be described as intertwined with those of the
material or visible realm, at least at some stage or other in the successions
that are interconnected. Hence all the
successions are experienced as in the same fundamental order of ground and
consequent, as indeed they must be. This
allows for an interior sense of time in the perceiver, but the perceived
objects as such must have a succession subject to being so perceived, as in
unbroken succession or continuity, and to being apprehensible as fitting into
an order. This they must have in the
harmony of definitions, lest a succession emanate from the inner sense alone
(which would be any intuition interior to me), unless the harmony come also
from within. So Kant was partly right
yet, in greater part, wrong; the harmony of definition gives rise to that which
I perceive in time and is the condition of things in their definition. What is discontinuous I do not perceive
temporally, as I know from sleep between waking and dreaming or waking and
waking, or within other states of unconsciousness. What is not in logical succession cannot be
posterior in any harmonic order as, e.g., time.
According to Kant, time is only
the form of the internal sense, i.e., of my intuition of myself, my inner
state. He says that time cannot be a
determination peculiar to external phenomena. It refers neither to their shape,
nor their position, etc., but determines only the relation of representations
in the internal state. As the internal
intuition of time supplies no shape, I try to remedy the “deficiency” by means
of analogies, e.g., by representation of the succession of time by a line
progressing without limit (as I say, in substitution for Kant’s idea of
progression to infinity), in which the manifold constitutes a series of one
only dimension. Kant says one concludes
from the properties of the line as to all properties of time, with the
exception that the parts of a line are simultaneous, whereas those of time are
successive. Therefrom he concludes that
clearly the representation of time is an intuition.[13] True, time cannot be peculiar to external
phenomena, in the two senses that internal phenomena are also subject to time
and the perceiving and knowing mind, as limited, perceives all phenomena in
successive times according to their succession as ordinal or logical. His statement that time determines the
relation of representations in the internal state is revealing. Although it is the definition as ordered
(according to its harmony) that gives rise to time (in interior perception),
the relations of definitions are relations within (and because of) order. Time belongs to order, which is seen or read
into relations. (If the definitions are
altered, so is the order, as is time, e.g., in the case of high-velocity
travel.) While time may be represented
in linear fashion, the building of the spatial line from finite parts is an act
that occurs in time. The true difference
is that the parts of a completed time remain, while the things from completed
time (e.g., a premise that has given rise to a completed conclusion having a
life of its own) may be free to depart, as do the “former things” in regard to
change. Kant’s conclusion does not seem
of strict necessity to follow from his reasoning. His representation of them in terms of the
external intuition refers to his notion of space as that intuition’s form; but
if the nature of space is similar to that of time, the argument’s force is
lost. I can express pure mathematical
statements wholly in terms either of space, time or both without rendering
mathematics intuitive. Time as extended
by order takes part therein.
11
[B. The tension between “now” and the continuum:]
The past is no-longer; the
future, not-yet. The future becomes the
present, which becomes the past. “Is”
becomes “is-not.” The present has no
dimension, either; all the “presents” added together make no measurable period,
and there is no duration. The present
“is-not,” either; it has no dimension.
For every instant, no sooner than precisely pinpointed, passes into the
past and is followed by a subsequent instant, which likewise dissipates. There can accordingly be no dimension to any
instant. The alternative is that the
“now” be somehow a dimensional atomon (a contradiction, as any measurable is
in principle divisible into half-measures, etc.).
All my consciousness occurs in
time, i.e., in “the present.” Time as a
flow of “instants” is without duration, without measurable dimension; it is
accordingly not time at all. Time is self-contradictory. Yet because my consciousness occurs in time,
which is an essential structure of it,[14] I
am forced to admit a contradictory element to a consciousness not itself
disharmonic. Thus I must deny either
that time is a continuum of nondimensional points each denominated as “now” or
that time is an essential experiential structure. This latter view makes time but a curiosity
and, to be quite blunt, epistemological dross.
The problem therewith, the mathematician or physicist can retort, is that
time is of interest to those special sciences.
Yet it is precisely time which poses a Zenonian problem of the “many”
that is seemingly insoluble.[15]
A solution to the foregoing
might begin with the proposition that the foregoing arguments have force only
if time is reified as a result of a category-mistake. There is no “existence” (taken either
absolutely or in the sense of experiential nonvoids) involved in the
dissipation of temporal moments. Rather,
the “existence” belongs purely to entities perduring given periods of
time. Time, moreover, is not a thing
real in itself but a form of ordering sense-data, a form determined according
to such laws as causation (rather than determining such laws), a form which,
when not necessary, is discarded.
Time is yet an apparent
contradiction invoked, as it were, to prevent acknowledgment of what might
otherwise seem the contradiction one would say inheres in change, i.e., a
thing’s being yet in some way not-being something. Even if I say that the “time as inherent
contradiction” argument involves a category mistake, must I concede that any
attempt to measure time is in principle an exercise in falsehood? Or is time a duality necessarily involving
both continuum and discontinuous points denominated “now,” properly not
belonging to the continuum, both of which nevertheless intersect within
experience? And this, insofar as time
does not involve entity, is there no real contradiction ever risked in so
treating time?
Is time’s paradoxical nature
yet another reason for assigning it a place akin to that assigned above? I.e., part of it is purely phenomenal but part involves an
ordering for which consciousness alone cannot take full credit? Will that assignment alone cure the
paradox? Suppose the “now” were the
element of consciousness; the continuum, the transcendently[16]
founded element. The “now” will
dissipate, leading to each next moment of an otherwise measurable
continuum. The relation of the now to
the continuum, as long as it is one of the latter’s dependence in some way on
the former as outgrowth of it, still generates the paradox. Only by declaring a dependence relation of
the continuum on the “now” an illusion can I solve that one difficulty. But that solution in turn generates yet
another problem: Is not the argument for
my accepting causation at the level of phenomena founded upon an apparent
continuation of the object in some moment of experience according to the
harmony, i.e., in a continuum issuing from the moment “now?”
Does the above allow “now” and
“continuum” to be two different aspects of time, both necessary to it yet
neither of itself a sufficient aspect of it?
Does this allow for the generation of a continuum from a moment “now,”
as appears to occur in experience? “Now”
may not even be “sayable,” let alone “thinkable.” Were I to grant that, would that obliterate
the paradox? panta rei: That is the evidence of experience. A moment “now” is something artificially
abstracted from it, almost a transcendent treatment of that which is not
transcendent. A definite “now” I should
jettison, then, as dangerous to the possibility of immanent knowledge of the
appropriateness of causation, inter alia.
12
[C. The Kantian categories and harmony:]
[i. Harmony
as basis for their application; independence of harmony allowing transcendent
use:]
The above on harmony not
according to the inner system, independent of it as thing and harmony
(stripped, newly sensed by one knowing disharmony), generates a reply to Kant’s
doctrine on the use of the categories.
He argued that the categories (unity, plurality, totality; reality,
negation, limitation; substance, cause, community; possibility, existence,
necessity[17]) apply
only to percepta, because the thought
(or category) without an object is empty and the only schematism for their
application involves time, the inner form of perception.[18] But the categories apply to percepta because both are harmonic,
adhering to the law of noncontradiction.
Through independent harmony I have access to the harmonic in itself,
which has none other than harmonic being for an origin. A congruence between the harmonies allows
application of the categories to reality through this independent harmony.
The “stripped” pure harmony is
not merely a threshold to determining that a thing could be independent as to
its harmony; it is the harmony between the thing perceived and the system of
self-definition. That harmony alone
cannot be the independent as thing yet not independent as harmony, especially
where it is newly perceived by one who can perceive disharmony.
[ii.
Objection to independent harmony:
a. nontransmission:]
Lest it be argued that the
absence of internally sensed harmony[19] may
represent the mere failure of transmission of harmonization to the area to be
affected “normally,” whether because of nonattainment of a critical threshold
or otherwise, I note that where, e.g., within one part exist two problems, one
only (more difficult) of which is resolved, transmission would be to both and
is thus not failing. Similarly, e.g.,
were one to find a case where one or more such had been aided in general and
harmonized, though the absence of internal euharmony still obtained, one would find
the problem was not of nontransmission thereof.
[ii.
(Cont’d.): b. Use of noncontradiction:]
Objection may arise to use of
general argument from noncontradiction to show that the law of causation
applies to transcendent being or things in themselves, on the ground that one
can apply that argument only to (and to the extent of) any phenomenon, and no
farther. I reply that one may apply such
a method in relation to the harmony perceived, which, in relation to the
harmonic system, must have a ground, according to its harmony. As I cannot assign any cause within the
system at all, within myself, yet as I have been given before me that harmony
as such, the harmony would be overthrown unless I were to proceed by
noncontradiction to show that the harmony in question had a harmony, real and
transcendent, as ground.
[ii.
(Cont’d.): c. The verifiability criterion of meaning:]
External to the
system, objection may arise that one cannot obtain knowledge of reality or of
God, because such concepts transcend known percepta
and formal rules of logic (which tell nothing new, according to the
objection, because they involve mere definitional tautologies). Such ideas, not fitting either division, are
devoid of meaning insofar as they refer to nothing that would verify or falsify
them, according to the objection. The
objection misconstrues the operation of reason, which does not merely perform
tautologies but finds in particular things (e.g., a given living person) hidden
aspects (e.g., mortality) visible or knowable in the harmonization towards the
universal (e.g. all members of Homo
sapiens are mortal, the living fitting the same form as those who have
died), even though it is done by combinations of definitions. Even in identity, an element is added in synthesis
to the simple fact of the thing identified, which is the harmonic constancy in
discursive moments. Identity is not the
sole law, for there is also the well known law of noncontradiction allowing one
to distinguish the harmonic from the disharmonic in discourse, as well as void
in experience from nonvoid (e.g., dreamless sleep). Thence one may draw an apophatic concept of
reality, which, in the level of givenness, refers to the nonvoid experience of
harmony, for example (which, in turn, is, in part, nondiscord). By showing the unanticipated harmony one may
show an independent power that for its underpinning (conceived analogously with
that, e.g., of ideas, which are their perceptual referents) must have that which
is harmonic and thus nonvoid, and, in an apophatic sense, “real.” Only in this way can one know the
“real.” And through the law of
causation, known to apply to transcendent reality through the independent harmony,
one can know whether the entity supporting consciousness (for example) is self-sufficient
or radically dependent on a Creator.
[1] Critique of Pure Reason, Elements of Transcendentalism,
Transcendental Aesthetic, §1.
[2] See this work, §13, infra.
[3] Kant , op. cit., §4, I.
[4] Id. at A: 23, B: 38; but see below for
an answer.
[5] Id. at §4, II.
[6] Id., Transcendental Analytic, A: 183-86,
B: 226-29.
[7] Id., Transcendental Aesthetic, §4, III.
[8] Id., §4, IV.
[9] Id., §4, V.
[10] I Cor.
XIII: 9.
[11] Kant, op. cit., §5.
[12] Id., Conclusions from the Foregoing Concepts, a.
[13] Id.,
Conclusions from the Foregoing Concepts, b.
[14] See generally Kant, op. cit.,
Transcendental Aesthetic, passim.
[15]
One should be reminded of the argument outlines in, e.g., F. Copleston, S.J., A History of Philosophy, vol. I, part 1
(Garden City, N.Y. 1962), p. 72, and quoted in G. de Santillana, The Origins of Scientific Thought (Chicago 1961), pp. 102f.
[16] I
deem it appropriate to adopt “transcendent” and “transcendently” to refer to
that which is beyond any possible experience, and to restrict use of “transcendental”
and “transcendentally” to refer to that which conditions any possible
cognition, including any possible experience, a usage I would be reluctant to
adopt except for its being consonant with Kant’s usage. Where the “transcendental” as condition of
any possible cognition appears to be a being beyond possible experience, I call
it “transcendent[al].” The
terminological problem regarding “transcendent” and “transcendental” comes to a
head on considering what to make of the “transcendental ego” taken to refer not
only to the necessary condition of experience and knowledge but also to an
absolute ego, the sine qua non of
consciousness yet never itself within possible experience, or, according to the
formula ego-cogito-cogitatum, the
nonpsychological ego taken as subject (taken so logically, perhaps, whereof
causative activity [cogitare] is
posited) standing outside experience, tends towards the status of a
transcendent ego. Accordingly, I propose
the term “transcendent[al] ego,” which exploits not only the intention of the
term’s prior use but also a criticism which should be manifest below.
[18] Id., ch. II, section II, § 22 (B: 146), see also Transcendental Logic, Introduction, I: Gedanken ohne Inhalt sind leer, Anschauungen
ohne Begriffe sind blind (B: 75/A: 51); bk. II, ch. I, sect. 3, 3B (B:
183f/A: 144f).
[19] See this text §13, infra.
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